KIKGASKAHNE
Member
- Joined
- Oct 15, 2009
- Messages
- 60
- Reaction score
- 0
- Points
- 6
DiP, I thought about your question overnite. I don't have a lot of resources at home, so my response is a bit of a guess. On the other hand, I suspect there are likely no reported cases on your point anyway.
First, you definitely meet the first two stages of the criminal test: 1. You would be "found in" the MP in the course of a hypothetical bust. 2. You have suffficient knowledge re the type of place you are in and what goes on there to make out "mens rea". Regardless of your own motives in frequenting the place, the cops would prove that others went there for the pruposes of sex. I don't read the section as imposing a requirement that each and every customer need to be searching for sexual gratification to make the place a bawdy house. The old adage that some guys go to brothels just to talk to the girls is well known.
So the issue is whether you have a "lawful excuse". I played with your facts a little. If you had no sex at all, I think you might have some chance of beating the charge in front of the right judge. The fact that you do get sex - although it is subsidiary to the emotional and personal connection you make - probably makes it very likely that the Court would not accept you as having a lawful excuse.
This is a topic which could do with more research and the scope of what would consitute a "lawful excuse" in particular is an interesting ?. Right now, I simply don't have the time to do this much work on an issue not related to one of my actual existing cases.
First, you definitely meet the first two stages of the criminal test: 1. You would be "found in" the MP in the course of a hypothetical bust. 2. You have suffficient knowledge re the type of place you are in and what goes on there to make out "mens rea". Regardless of your own motives in frequenting the place, the cops would prove that others went there for the pruposes of sex. I don't read the section as imposing a requirement that each and every customer need to be searching for sexual gratification to make the place a bawdy house. The old adage that some guys go to brothels just to talk to the girls is well known.
So the issue is whether you have a "lawful excuse". I played with your facts a little. If you had no sex at all, I think you might have some chance of beating the charge in front of the right judge. The fact that you do get sex - although it is subsidiary to the emotional and personal connection you make - probably makes it very likely that the Court would not accept you as having a lawful excuse.
This is a topic which could do with more research and the scope of what would consitute a "lawful excuse" in particular is an interesting ?. Right now, I simply don't have the time to do this much work on an issue not related to one of my actual existing cases.